60 Contoh Soal Tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN 2024 dan Jawabannya

ilustrasi contoh soal tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN. Foto: Aprillio Akbar/ANTARA FOTO

Contoh soal tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN 2024 merupakan salah satu bahan sebagai langkah persiapan tes rekrutmen. Tes Bahasa Inggris memiliki peran yang sangat vital. Tes ini dirancang untuk menilai kemampuan bahasa Inggris peserta seleksi tersebut.

Penguasaan bahasa Inggris yang baik berguna untuk berkomunikasi secara efektif dengan kolega dan klien internasional, memahami dokumen profesional dalam bahasa Inggris, hingga meningkatkan daya saing dalam sebuah karier.

Sebagai bahan persiapan untuk menghadapi rangkaian rekrutmen bersama BUMN 2024, berikut ini contoh soal Tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN 2024 yang bisa dipelajari di rumah.

Contoh Soal Tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN 2024

ilustrasi contoh soal tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN. Foto: Aprillio Akbar/ANTARA FOTO

Berdasarkan informasi dari rekrutmenbersama2024.fhcibumn.id, tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN 2024 akan dilaksanakan pada 25 Mei – 27 Mei 2024. Tes ini diujikan untuk peserta jenjang D-III, D-IV/S1, dan S2.

Pada periode ini, peserta akan mengerjakan Tes Bahasa Inggris dan Learning Agility dengan pembobotan Bahasa Inggris (80%) dan Learning Agility (20%). Batas lulus minimal tes Bahasa Inggris, yakni minimal 450. Sementara untuk Learning Agility minimal 197.

Struktur tes bahasa Inggris biasanya terdiri dari tiga aspek, yaitu listening comprehension, structure and written test, serta reading comprehension.

Dihimpun dari buku Sukses Seleksi BUMN 2024 terbitan Media Eduka dan sumber lainnya, berikut contoh soal tes Bahasa Inggris BUMN 2024 reading comprehension dan Structure and Written yang bisa dipelajari.

Baca Juga: Cara Cek Hasil Seleksi Tahap 1 Relawan Bakti BUMN Batch V

A. Reading Comperhension

ilustrasi contoh soal tes Bahasa Inggris reading BUMN. Foto: unsplash.com.

Read this text carefully for questions 1-2!

1. What is the topic of the paragraph?

a. How to care of animals in winter

b. Spring and fail seasons in Montana

c. The life of cowboy throughout the year

d. Winter, an extreme season in Montana

Jawaban: C

2. With which of the following sentences should the paragraph end?

a. Therefore, cowboys are usually considered very strong

b. Thus, throughout the year cowboy work hard but they enjoy their social life

c. To conclude, all cowboys are well trained and good at rodeos

d. That’s why cowboys work very hard only during the spring and fail

Jawaban: B

Questions 3-6 refer to the following passage!

3. What is one advantage of engaging in outdoor exercise?

a. Increased screen time

b. Exposure to natural sunlight

c. Limited access to fresh air

d. Decreased physical fitness

Jawabannya: B

4. Which of the following activities is NOT mentioned as a form of outdoor exercise in the passage?

a. Walking

b. Jogging

c. Cycling

d. Weightlifting

Jawabannya: D

5. How does outdoor exercise benefit cardiovascular health?

a. By increasing screen time

b. By strengthening muscles

c. By improving bone health

d. By reducing stress

Jawabannya: B

6. According to the passage, what positive effects does outdoor exercise have on mental health?

a. Increased stress and anxiety

b. Improved mood and happiness

c. Decreased exposure to fresh air

d. Limited access to natural sunlight

Jawabannya: B

Questions 7-8 refer to the following passage!

7. What is the main idea of the passage?

a. In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors.

b. The traditions of society are timeless.

c. An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society.

d. Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.

Jawabannya: C

8. According to the second paragraph, the phrase “this tradition” refers to

a. The practice of starting the business day at dawn

b. Friendly relations between neighbors

c. The railroad’s reliance on time schedules

d. People’s agreement on the measurement of time

Jawabanya: D

Questions 9-11 refer to the following announcement!

9. Where will the community service event be held?

a. Oakville High School

b. School Office

c. Community Center

d. Oakville Park

Jawabannya: D

10. On the announcement above, the word “beautify” is closest in meaning to _______.

a. Clean

b. Improve

c. Organize

d. Decorate

Jawabannya: B

11. What is the purpose of the community service event?

a. To earn money

b. To meet new people

c. To beautify Oakville Park

d. To organize games and activities

Jawabannya: C

Questions 12-13 refer to the following passage!

12. What is the main idea of the passage?

a. In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors.

b. The traditions of society are timeless.

c. An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning of society.

d. Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.

Jawaban: C

13. According to the second paragraph, the phrase “this tradition” refers to

a. the practice of starting the business day at dawn

b. friendly relations between neighbors

c. the railroad’s reliance on time schedules

d. people’s agreement on the measurement of time

Jawaban: D

Questions 14-23 refer to the following passage!

14. The passage primarily discusses the pipeline’s

a. operating costs

b. employees

c. consumers

d. construction

Jawaban: D

15. The yellow highlighted word “it” in paragraph 1 refers to the

a. pipeline

b. ocean

c. state

d. village

Jawaban:A

16. According to the second paragraph, 84 million gallons of oil can travel through the pipeline each

a. day

b. week

c. month

d. year

Jawaban: A

17. The phrase “Resting on” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to

a. Consisting of

b. Supported by

c. Passing under

d. Protected with

Jawaban:B

18. The author mentions all of the following in the third paragraph as important in determining the pipeline’s route EXCEPT the

a. climate

b. lay of the land itself

c. local vegetation

d. kind of soil and rock

Jawaban: C

19. The yellow highlighted word “undertaken” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

a. removed

b. selected

c. transported

d. attempted

Jawaban: D

20. According to the last paragraph, how many companies shared the costs of constructing the pipeline?

a. three

b. four

c. eight

d. twelve

Jawaban: C

21. The yellow highlighted word “particular” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to

a. peculiar

b. specific

c. exceptional

d. equal

Jawaban: B

22. According to the last paragraph, which of the following determined what percentage of the construction costs each member of the consortium would pay?

a. How much oil field land each company owned

b. How long each company had owned land in the oil fields

c. How many people worked for each company

d. How many oil wells were located on the company’s land

Jawaban: A

23. Look at green highlighted sentences, Where in the passage does the author provide a term for a layer of soil that always remains frozen?

a. Line 4

b. Line 15

c. Line 23

d. Line 37

Jawaban: C

Questions 24-30 refer to the following passage!

24. What is the passage mainly about?

a. Horse breading

b. Horse farming

c. Animal breeders

d. Breeding knowledge

Jawaban: A

25. What percent is the average amount of mares bred conceive?

a. about 45%

b. around 85%

c. more than 70%

d. up to 50%

Jawaban: a

26. The word "conceive" in line 3 can be replaced by .

a. become sick.

b. become pregnant.

c. die.

d. be born.

Jawaban: B

27. Which of the following was NOT owned by Great Horse of the Middle Ages?

a. Large size

b. Beauty

c. Strength

d. Swiftness

Jawaban: B

28. The words “These” in line 9 refers to .

a. Arabs

b. Desert horses

c. Breeds

d. Animals

Jawaban: A

29. The word “highpoint” in 12 can be replaced by .

a. popularity.

b. standard.

c. Massiveness

d. Top

Jawaban: D

30. According to the passage, which of the following, horses is known as the finest purebred?

a. Darley Arabian

b. Thoroughbred

c. Godolphin Barb

d. Byerly Turk

Jawaban: B

B. Structure and Written

ilustrasi contoh soal tes Bahasa Inggris writing BUMN. Foto: Pexels.com

31. The manager was deeply concerned as his production numbers were _____.

a. Falling out

b. Falling off

c. Falling through

d. Falling over

Jawaban: B

32. We attended the painting exhibition _____ the rain.

a. Although

b. Because

c. Despite of

d. In spite of

Jawaban: C

33. Amanda Way’s career as a social reformer _____ in 1851 when, at an antislavery meeting in Indiana, she called for a state woman’s rights convention.

a. To have begun

b. Have begun

c. Began

d. Begin

Jawaban: C

34. He _____ a book when I arrived.

a. Is reading

b. Reading

c. Read

d. Was reading

Jawaban: D

35. Forests stabilize _____ and retain precipitation, thereby helping to prevent erosion and regulate the flow of streams.

a. To the soil

b. Where the soil

c. The soil

d. The soil is

Jawaban: C

36. _____ Miss Eleanor nor Mr. Park will attend the annual workshop next Thursday.

a. Neither

b. Either

c. Not only

d. Both

Jawaban: A

37. _____ the Dollar as its monetary unit in 1878.

a. Adopted by Canada

b. Canada adopted

c. The Canadian adoption of

d. It was adopted by Canada

Jawaban: B

38. The celesta, an orchestral percussion instrument, resembles _____.

a. As a small upright piano

b. A small upright piano is

c. How a small upright piano

d. A small upright piano

Jawaban: D

39. The history teacher _____ at school.

a. Are working

b. Works

c. Going to work

d. Working

Jawaban: B

40. Astronomers estimate _____ called the Pleiades in the constellation Taurus is 415 light-years away from Earth.

a. Cluster of stars

b. That is a loose cluster of stars

c. That a loose cluster of stars

d. There is a loose cluster of stars

Jawaban: C

41. Dad: “When did you realize you had lost your wallet?”

Me: “When I _____ it to pay the conductor.”

a. Had needed

b. Was needing

c. Am needing

d. Have needing

Jawaban: A

42. The Glass Mountains of northwestern Oklahoma _____ with flecks of gypsum, which shine in the sunlight.

a. Covered them

b. They are covered

c. That are covered

d. Are covered

Jawaban: D

43. Thomas Paine, _____, wrote Common Sense, a pamphlet that identified the American colonies with the cause of liberty.

a. Whose eloquent writing

b. Writer of eloquent

c. Writing eloquent

d. An eloquent writer

Jawaban: D

44. The CEO is meeting with the investors, as the company would like to _____ operations.

a. Expanse

b. Expend

c. Expand

d. Expense

Jawaban: C

45. One question _____ you may not have considered involves _____ low physical demands _____ computer learning. What _____ exercise? Computers certainly do not promote _____ activity.

a. About - the - of - about - physical

b. That - the - of - about - physical

c. To - that - of - about - physical

d. That - the - about - of - physical

e. Of - the - about - that - physical

Jawaban:B

46. _____, the Alpaca, is smaller than the llama and ordinarily is not used as a beast of burden.

a. A sure-footed animal

b. It is a sure-footed animal

c. That sure-footed animal

d. A sure-footed animal that

Jawaban: A

47. In the United States, _____ is generally the responsibility of municipal governments.

a. Where water treatment

b. Water treatment

c. For water treatment

d. In which water treatment

Jawaban: B

48. Although beavers rarely remain submerged for more than two minutes, they can stay underwater _____ fifteen minutes before having to surface for air.

a. So long that

b. So long

c. As long

d. As long as

Jawaban: D

49. Ms. Althea is a gifted speaker, and everybody … listening to her talks.

a. Are enjoying

b. Enjoy

c. Have enjoyed

d. Enjoys

Jawaban: D

50. You are already grown up so you should be able to _____ between good and bad.

a. Verify

b. Discriminate

c. Distinguish

d. Differentiate

Jawaban: C

51. My friend: “Why didn’t Jane want to go home?”

Me: Her mother _____ her for causing the motorbike accident.”

a. Had blamed

b. Would blame

c. Is blaming

d. Has blamed

Jawaban: A

52. Protein digestion begins in the stomach _____ ends in the small intestine.

a. How

b. And

c. Because

d. While

Jawaban: B

53. Education in Indonesia is the _____ of school, government, and society.

a. Responsive

b. Responsibility

c. Responsible

d. Responsibly

Jawaban: B

54. Having given the prescription to the patient, _____.

A. The medicine had to be taken regularly by patient

B. The doctor told the patient to take the medicine regularly

C. The patient was told to take the medicine regularly

D. The medicine was taken regularly by the patient

Jawaban: B

55. I would have gone to your party last night if I _____ time.

a. Would had

b. Had had

c. Have

d. Had

Jawaban: D

56. When natural gas burns, it's _____ into atoms of carbon and hydrogen.

a. Broke up by hydrocarbon molecules

b. Broken up hydrocarbon molecules

c. Hydrocarbon molecules break up

d. Hydrocarbon molecules, breaking up

Jawaban: C

57. The great apes, a generally peaceful species _____ in groups

a. Would rather they live

b. Would rather live

c. Would rather living

d. Would rather lived

Jawaban: B

58. My brother sent his car to a garage to _____ because he could not repair it himself.

a. Repair it

b. Have repaired

c. Have it repaired

d. Repair it myself

Jawaban: C

59. Don’t persuade Lara’s husband to buy her a ring, he is rather _____ over money matters.

a. Mean

b. Jealous

c. Greedy

d. Selfish

Jawaban: A

60. _____ ballet dancers learn five basic positions for the arms and feet.

a. All

b. All of

c. Every

d. Of every

Jawaban: A

(IPT)